Hello Graham, thanks for responding.

You said:

"The question is largely irrelevant because this incident probably never happened. According to the NRSV bible, this passage is not recorded in "the most ancient authorities", and "some mark the passage as doubtful". It would seem therefore to be a later addition by some unknown author for his own reasons."

It's just the opposite, actually.

Our oldest complete Bible is from the 4th century. Manuscripts around this time lack the passage.

Yet in the centuries prior to this, we have this passage appearing everywhere.

Even Papias, writing at the end of the first century, testifies to this passage, speaking of how Jesus dealt with this woman caught in adultery.

Augustine wrote that in his day, people were removing this passage from their Bibles, fearing that it was encouraging people to sin.

It's not the case that this passage was added later.

It was in right at the start--but it was removed.